viswanathan
New member
- Joined
- Jul 6, 2021
- Messages
- 1
I want to show that the infimum of the set of all numbers of the form [MATH]\bigg(1+\frac{1}{n}\bigg)^n[/MATH] where n=1,2,3,... is 2.
I believe I can prove this if I can show that
[MATH]\bigg(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\bigg)^{n+1} > \bigg(1+\frac{1}{n}\bigg)^n[/MATH]
But I don't know how to show this is true.
Someone please help.
I believe I can prove this if I can show that
[MATH]\bigg(1+\frac{1}{n+1}\bigg)^{n+1} > \bigg(1+\frac{1}{n}\bigg)^n[/MATH]
But I don't know how to show this is true.
Someone please help.