Integrate
Junior Member
- Joined
- May 17, 2018
- Messages
- 109
Why?They don't need to equate!
Meaning I misplaced a constant?You probably don't have a mistake. If you plot your two answers you will see they differ by a constant so their difference is in the constant of integration. You might try differentiating their difference and showing it is zero.
No. Suppose you had the simpler integral [MATH]\int 2\sin x \cos x ~dx[/MATH] and got an answer of [MATH]-\cos^2(x) + C[/MATH] and someone else using a different method got [MATH]\sin^2(x) + C[/MATH]. Are either of the answers wrong?Meaning I misplaced a constant?
Just a different selection in U so yeah, you’re right.No. Suppose you had the simpler integral [MATH]\int 2\sin x \cos x ~dx[/MATH] and got an answer of [MATH]-\cos^2(x) + C[/MATH] and someone else using a different method got [MATH]\sin^2(x) + C[/MATH]. Are either of the answers wrong?
That constant you missed was a major mistakeMeaning I misplaced a constant?
You NEVER get a unique answer to an indefinite inegral. You get the correct answer up to a constant!Just a different selection in U so yeah, you’re right.
But how can that be?
sin2x + c1 = (1- cos2x) + c1 = - cos2x + (c1+1) = - cos2x + c2.Just a different selection in U so yeah, you’re right.
But how can that be?
Yes thank yousin2x + c1 = (1- cos2x) + c1 = - cos2x + (c1+1) = - cos2x + c2.
Is it clear now?
So I just subtract the two and take the derivative to see if it equals zero if I want to know if they are equivalent?@Integrate: What you really should do with your particular problem is show the two answers are equivalent, i.e, they differ by a constant. An easy way to show [MATH]f-g = C[/MATH] is to show its derivative is zero. Try that with the difference of your two answers:
[MATH]\sin^2 x - \frac {\sin^4 x}{2}+\frac{\cos^4 x} 2[/MATH]You might like what you see and learn something in the process.
Don't you see that would be the case. Suppose [math]\int f(x)dx[/math] = F(x) + c1 and also equals G(x) + c2. Then F(x) - G(x) = c2 - c1 = c. The derivative of a constant and only a constant is 0.So I just subtract the two and take the derivative to see if it equals zero if I want to know if they are equivalent?
Because the cosine and sine functions are the same function subject to a phase shiftJust a different selection in U so yeah, you’re right.
But how can that be?
All functions have a phase shift.Because the cosine and sine functions are the same function subject to a phase shift
[MATH]cos(x ) = sin\left (\dfrac{\pi}{2} + x \right )[/MATH]
Oh so x^{3/4} is the same as tan(x) just subject to a phase shift?All functions have a phase shift.